I am not all that savvy about the workings of banking these days. But this seems like b.s. to me.

A man and woman (she's from England, not sure what her American citizenship status was) move into a property only she mortgaged. They break up, after a few years, and she goes back to England and defaults on everything she has out in America, including the mortgage on their shared property. So, the guy pays for three months on the property anyway since that is where he lives and does not want to lose it.

So, after three months, he calls the bank and explains what has happened. Keep in mind, none of this is in his name. The bank (supposedly) tells him to immediately stop paying on the mortgage and wait for her to default, then they will refinance.

Does that make sense? I don't see a bank not milking out him paying for as long as he would and then going forward if and when he decides to stop payment. I am guessing this guy is full of it.

It's not making sense to me either. I'm not seeing how he wouldn't have to apply for the loan & go through the entire hideous process. They can't "refinance" a loan he doesn't even have. And I'm not seeing how anything could happen with this particular house until she defaults & goes through foreclosure.